CCNA 1 Discovery Version 4.0 Module 5

Module 5 - Exam Answers

 1. How large are IPv4 addresses?

  8 bits
  16 bits
  **32 bits
  64 bits
  128 bits

 

2. Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?

  The router interface does not have a default gateway.
  The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
  **The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
  The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

 

3. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?

  first two octets
  third and fourth octets
  network portion
  **host portion
  only the fourth octet

 

4. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?

  172.32.65.0
  172.32.65.32
  **172.32.0.0
  172.32.32.0

 

5. Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?

  **255.0.0.0
  255.255.0.0
  255.255.255.0
  255.255.255.252

 

6. How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?

  4
  8
  **16
  24

 

7. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

  **254
  255
  256
  510
  511
  512

 

8. Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?

  175.124
  **35.4
  .4
  124.35.4
  175.124.35

 

9. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

  **10.1.1.1
  172.32.5.2
  192.167.10.10 

  **172.16.4.4
  **192.168.5.5
  224.6.6.6

 

10. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?

  **a specific host
  a group of hosts
  the default gateway
  the network broadcast address

 

11. What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?

  the MAC address of the sending host
  the MAC address of the destination host
  **an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
  a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

 

12. Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?

  broadcast
  simulcast
  multicast
  **unicast

 

13. What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?

  MAC and IP addresses for the default router
  IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
  MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
  **MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

 

14. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?

  The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
  The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
  **The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
  The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

 

15. Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?

  ARP
  **DHCP
  DNS
  RARP

 

16. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

  The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
  **The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
  The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
  **The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
  **All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
  Only the DHCP server receives the message.

 

17. Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?

  IP address of the destination host
  public gateway IP address of the ISP
  external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
  *internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network

 

18. Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?

  ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
  allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
  **solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
  allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location

 

19. What is one of the purposes of NAT?

  filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
  **prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
  inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
  translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names

 

20. Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)

  Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
  Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
  **Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
  Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
  **Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.

 

21. Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?

  **10.0.0.17
  128.107.1.2
  192.135.250.0
  209.165.201.1

CCNA 1 Discovery Version 4.0 Module 4

 Module 4 - Exam Answers

1. Which definition describes the term Internet?

  a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
  a group of PCs connected together by an ISP 

 **a network of networks that connects countries around the world
  a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

 

2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)? 

  between a client and a host
  between two local networks
  between a computer and a switch
  **between an ISP and a home-based LAN

 

3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs? 

  Internet LAN
  ISP backbone
  Internet gateways
  Internet providers
  **Internet backbone

 

4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package? 

  hub
  bridge
  modem
  repeater
  **ISR

 

5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.) 

  **fast connections
  **extra web space
  free Windows upgrade
  cheapest cost available to all users
  **additional e-mail accounts
  replacement hardware at no cost

 

6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service? 

  Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
  Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
  **Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
  Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

 

7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.) 

  **an IP address
  file sharing enabled
  **a network connection
  server services enabled
  **access to an Internet service provider
  an address obtained directly from the RIR

 

8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks? 

  NOC
  ISP
  **hop
  segment

 

9. What does the tracert command test? 

  NIC functionality
  the ISP bandwidth
  **the network path to a destination
  the destination application functionality

 

10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network? 

  analog technology
  cable modem technology
  digital subscriber line technology
  wireless technology

 

11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network? 

  **to connect end users using cable technology
  to connect end users using analog technology
  to connect end users using wireless technology
  to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

 

12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown? 

  STP
  UTP
  coax
  **fiber

 

13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown? 

  STP
  **UTP
  coax
  fiber

 

14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.) 

  between buildings
  **in a home office network 

  where EMI is an issue
  in a cable TV network
  **inside a school building
  in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

 

15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure? 

  data security
  no loss of signal
  no electromagnetic interference
  **reliable data communications

 

16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?

 

  **crossover
  eight coax channels
  multimode fiber
  single-mode fiber
  straight-through

 

17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling? 

  ST
  BNC
  RJ-11
  **RJ-45

 

18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.) 

  uses RJ-11 jacks
  **uses RJ-45 jacks
  supports only data transmissions
  **allows quick rearrangements of network connections
  forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

 

19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.) 

  requires no preplanning
  **aids in isolation of cabling problems
  **protects cables from physical damage
  provides compliance with future standards
  provides a short-term solution for cable installation

 

20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.) 

  installing cables in conduit
  **having improper termination
  losing light over long distances
  installing low quality cable shielding
  **using low quality cables or connectors

 

21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)  

  **pinouts
  **cable lengths
  connector color
  **connector types
  cost per meter (foot)
  tensile strength of plastic insulator

CCNA 4 Exploration v4.0 - Module 8

Chapter 8 - Exam Answers

1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

cable types
connector types
• interface identifiers
• DLCI for virtual circuits
operating system versions

 

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

physical
• data link
network
transport

 

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect encapsulation
incorrect STP configuration
incorrect ARP mapping
• incorrect clock rate

 

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

• information about the network design
IP addressing allocation on the network
requirements about the service provider setup
requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
• expected performance under normal operating conditions

 

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

 

6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

 

7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?

• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the
application servers in the data center.
The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

 

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?

• bottom up
top down
divide and conquer
middle out

 

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?

• baselining tool
knowledge base
protocol analyzer
cable tester

 

10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?

cable analyzer
• network analyzer
protocol analyzer
knowledge base

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

physical
data link
network
• application

 

12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?

narrowing the scope
gathering symptoms from suspect devices
analyzing existing symptoms
• determining ownership

 

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)

• A carrier detect signal is present.
• Keepalives are being received successfully.
Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
The reliability of this link is very low.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

 

14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

 

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

application
transport
network
data link
• physical

 

16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?

physical
• data link
network
transport

 

17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

 

18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

physical layer
data link layer
network layer
• transport layer
• application layer

 

19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?

All layers
• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
Layer 6 and Layer 7

 

20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

Determine fault.
Get to know the user to build trust.
• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

CCNA 4 Exploration v4.0 - Module 7

Chapter 7 - Exam Answers

1. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?

Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.

 

2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?

show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk

show cdp neighbors
show interfaces
show ip interface brief

3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
They select the functions that occur at the network core.
They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?

• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

 

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)

Provide redundant connections to all end users.
Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

 

6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?

discarding
Forwarding
learning
listening

 

7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)

• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

 

8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?

• R1

S1
R3
S2
R5
S3

 

9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?

Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?

Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?

• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

 

12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?

the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
the priority number given to the device for the election process
the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

 

13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?

• STP

BGP
RSTP
HSRP

 

14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?

NBAR
a pilot network
a route summary
• a network simulator

a physical topology map

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?

Test Description
Test Procedures
Design and Topology Diagram
Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

 

16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?

• Appendix
Test Procedures
Test Description
Actual Results and Conclusions
Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?

inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
outbound on S0/0 of R2

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?

• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.

 

19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?

a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
port security at the distribution design layer
IP access control lists at the access design layer

 

20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)

Switch1 is the root bridge.
Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

 

21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?

root
backup
alternate
• Designated

CCNA 4 Exploration v4.0 - Module 6

  

Chapter 6 - Exam Answers

1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

users are on a shared medium
uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

 

2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

• channel widths
access method
maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
compression techniques

 

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

 

4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

cable
• DSL
ISDN
POTS

 

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?

A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.

 

6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

accounting
• authentication
authorization
data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity

 

7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)

• digital certificates
ESP
hashing algorithms
• smart cards
WPA

 

8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
hashing
passwords

 

9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)

• AES
• DES
AH
hash
MPLS
• RSA

 

10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

Diffie-Hellman
digital certificate
• pre-shared key
RSA signature

 

11. Which statement describes cable?

• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

 

12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker's site?

a WiMAX tower
a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
an access point connected to the company WLAN

 

13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

 

14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?

• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
Data is flowing downstream.
Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.

 

16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)

• AH
L2TP
• ESP
GRE
PPTP

 

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

ATM
CHAP
• IPsec
IPX
MPLS
• PPTP

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

a GRE tunnel
a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.