CCNA 1 - Exam 640 - 802

CCNA1 - Exploration [final exam answers]




1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

--> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.



2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

--> A, B, D, G


3. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

--> only computer D



4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

--> enable secret


5. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

--> TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

--> TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

--> TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.



6. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

--> 100 Base-FX

--> 1000 Base LX



7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

--> 192.168.254.1



8. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

--> 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA


9. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

--> address translation


10. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

--> issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1



11. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

--> 172.16.4.63 /26

--> 172.16.4.191 /26

--> 172.16.4.95 /27



12. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

--> A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

--> All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

--> After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.


13. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

--> NVRAM


14. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

--> router



15. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

--> transport



16. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

--> The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
--> Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.


17. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

--> Switch-6J#



18. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

--> 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0


19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

--> when the interface is functioning as a DCE device


20. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

--> upper-layer connection-oriented protocols


21. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
secure?

--> enable secret


22. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

--> a terminal emulation program



23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

-->The connection type is called a VTY session.

--> The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.



24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

--> service port number



25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

--> A single broadcast domain is present

--> Five collision domains exist.



26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

--> IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17



27. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)


--> segment1

--> segment3

--> segment4



28. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

--> uses a flat structure

--> uniquely identifies each host

--> contains a network portion



29. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?


--> The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.



30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

--> The return segment will contain a source port of 23.



31. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?


--> 198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com



32. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?


--> two applications communicating the data



33. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)


--> The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.

--> The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.



34. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?


--> 3



35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?


--> The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.



36. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

--> Connection 1 - straight-through cable , Connection 2 - crossover cable , Connection 3 - straight-through cable




37. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

--> The host's primary domain name server.



38. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.

--> The data listed is associated with the transport layer.


39. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

--> 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

--> 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

--> 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255



40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)


--> physical addressing

--> media access control



41. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

--> 0 to 1023



42. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?


--> 255.255.254.0



43. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?


--> Athens



44. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?


--> Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75



45. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?


--> star



46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?


--> subnet mask incorrectly entered



47. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)


--> 192.168.18.49

--> 192.168.18.52

-->192.168.18.59



48. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)



--> The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

--> The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

--> The prefix of the computer address is /27.



49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

--> leaving Dallas



50. Which Osi Layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?


--> transport layer




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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 11

Chapter 11 - Exam Answers



Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

--> UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1



In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

--> as the commands are entered



Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

--> enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A



When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

--> Console



Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

--> RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login



Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

--> show interfaces



Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

--> privileged executive mode

--> enable mode



What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

--> Router(config)# hostname Fontana



The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

--> Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

--> Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

--> Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000



Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

--> IP assigned to the serial port on Router B



Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

--> NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address



Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

--> show startup-config

--> show running-config



Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

--> hot keys

--> context-sensitive

--> command syntax check



Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

--> The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.

--> The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.



Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

--> Ctrl-Shift-6



The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

--> Issue a show interfaces command on router C.



In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

--> Flash




On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

--> console




A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

--> SSH


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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 10

Chapter 10 - Exam Answers





Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)


--> connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports

--> connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds



Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

--> They segment broadcast domains.
--> They interconnect different network technologies.
--> Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.




Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

router
--> hub
switch
wireless access point



A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

STP
* UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber



Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
* Five broadcast domains are present.
* Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
*Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.



Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

RJ 11
* DB 60
* Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
* smart serial
RJ 45



How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

30
256
* 2046
2048
4094
4096



Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

--> host B would be successful, host A would fail




Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
* 192.168.3.54



Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
* Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
* Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
* Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.



A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248



Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

wireless access point
router
hub
* switch



Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

2
* 3
4
5



What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

* loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device



To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

--> rollover cable




What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

* greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
*limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
*greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated



Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
--> 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248



Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

255.255.0.0
--> 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0



What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

cross-over
straight-through
* roll-over
patch cable



Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
* console interface

-------------------------

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :

What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)

--> direct configuration of the device

--> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

--> the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

or

What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

-->the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

--> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

hub
switch
bridge
* router
repeater



Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

--> 1

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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 9

Chapter 9 - Exam Answers



In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

--> Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.



Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

--> Physical layer

-->Data-link layer



Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

--> the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame

--> the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame



What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

--> addressing

--> error detection

--> frame delimiting



When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

--> The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.


6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

--> identifies the network layer protocol

--> makes the connection with the upper layers

--> insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting



What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

--> Logical Link Control sublayer



Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

--> A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.



Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

--> data field - network layer packet



Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

--> Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.

--> A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.



Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

--> Collisions can decrease network performance.



Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

--> network access



What is the primary purpose of ARP?

--> resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses



Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

--> No collisions will occur on this link.



Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

--> A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

--> A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.



Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

--> copied into RAM during system startup

--> contains a 3 byte OUI

--> 6 bytes long




Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

--> minimizing of collisions

--> increase in the throughput of communications




What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

--> copper UTP

--> optical fiber




Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

--> BA


After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

--> any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires

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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 8

Chapter 8 - Exam Answers





Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

--> backbone cable



In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F



When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router



With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously


Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical



An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter


XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

**coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP


What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.



What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

--> goodput

--> throughput

--> bandwidth



Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable



In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP



Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

kolmas



Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic


Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.



Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

--> generally uses lasers as the light source



What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area



What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket


What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 7

Chapter 7 - Exam Answers

Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

--> non-deterministic

--> less overhead

--> collisions exist



What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

--> facilitate the entry and exit of data on media



Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

-->8



What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

--> Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.




Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?

--> 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0




What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

--> They are 48 binary bits in length.

--> They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

--> They are considered physical addresses.




Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

--> source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB

--> source IP - PC



What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

--> media sharing

--> logical topology



What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

--> is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros



What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

--> Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card

--> Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme



Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

--> Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.

--> Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.



Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

--> MAC



What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

--> Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD

--> defined as placement of data frames on the media

--> Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media



What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

--> The media access control protocol can be very simple.



What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)


--> The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.

--> The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.




What is a function of the data link layer?

--> provides for the exchange data over a common local media



Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

--> the geographic scope of the network

--> the physical layer implementation

--> the number of hosts to be interconnected



What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

--> support frame error detection



A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

--> physical topology



Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

--> Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.




What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

--> Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.



Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

--> 8

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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 6

Chapter 6 - Exam Answers



How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

--> 32

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

--> 255.255.255.192


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?

--> IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33


Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

--> /27


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?


--> NAT is required for the host A network.


What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

--> 255.255.255.0


Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

--> This is a network address.



What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

--> is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain

--> varies in length

--> is used to forward packets



What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

--> 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000


A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

--> 172.16.192.160



Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

--> Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.



What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

--> The router will discard the packet.

--> The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.



Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)

--> 192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254

--> 192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192



Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

--> larger address space

--> data types and classes of service

--> authentication and encryption



Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

--> binary ANDing


What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

--> expanded addressing capabilities



Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

--> 10.35.66.70

--> 192.168.99.5

--> 172.18.88.90




Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

--> Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.

--> IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.



Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)


--> 172.16.4.155 /26

--> 172.16.4.193 /26

--> 172.16.4.207 /27



What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

--> a network



Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

--> The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.


Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

--> servers

--> network printers

--> routers

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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 5

Chapter 5 - Exam Answers





What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

--> source and destination IP address


In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

--> destination network address



In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

--> The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.



Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

--> *time-to-live



Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

--> network portion


Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

--> 192.133.219.1


If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

--> The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.



What is the purpose of a default gateway?

--> identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks



What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

--> static



When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

--> The router discards the packet.

--> The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.



What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

--> purpose

--> geographic location

--> ownership



What is a component of a routing table entry?

--> the next-hop address



Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

--> router

--> firewall



What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)


--> Performance degradation

--> security issues

--> host identification



Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

--> 4



Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)

--> If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.

--> If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.

--> If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.



Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

--> 10.10.10.6



Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

--> Replace S2 with a router.

-->Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.



Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

--> 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.

--> 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.



What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

--> provide routers with up-to-date routing tables

--> consume bandwidth to exchange route information



What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

--> A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.


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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 4

Chapter 4 - Exam Answers




Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

--> identifies the communicating applications
--> identifies multiple conversations between the hosts


Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

--> A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
--> Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.


Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)

--> This contains a Telnet request.
--> This is a TCP header.


With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?

--> 0 to 1023


Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

--> to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application



Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?

--> transport


Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?

--> reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged


Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

--> to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data



Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

--> identifies the communicating applications
--> identifies multiple conversations between the hosts


Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?

--> session establishment


What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?

--> source port


What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)

--> low overhead
--> connectionless


What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?

--> window size


Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?

--> UDP


Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?

--> source and destination


Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?

--> flow control
--> session establishment
--> numbering and sequencing


During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?

--> The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.


Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

--> minimal delays in data delivery


After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?

--> 80


Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?

--> TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

Assesment item Q:

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

--> The local host is using three client sessions.

--> The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.

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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 3

Chapter 3 - Exam Answers




What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?


--> FTP


What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)


--> Application

--> Services


A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)


--> centralized administration

--> security is easier to enforce


What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?


--> Used by the server to resolve names


What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?


--> DNS



What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)


--> DNS

--> SMTP

--> POP



What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)


--> acts as both a client and server within the same communication

--> hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files

--> can be used in client-server networks



Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)


--> HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client

--> Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access



Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)


--> MTA

--> SMTP



As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?


--> Does not support encryption



Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)


--> receives email from the client's MUA

--> passes email to the MDA for final delivery

--> uses SMTP to route email between servers



Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)


--> HTTP

--> HTTPS



A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)


--> Security is difficult to enforce.

--> A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.



Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?


--> Application



Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?


--> 80



What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)


--> Decentralized resources

--> Resource sharing without a dedicated server



What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks? (Be careful its asking in Microsoft network)


--> SMB



What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)


--> initiate data exchanges

--> may upload data to servers



What is the role of the OSI application layer?


--> provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network



How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?


--> uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service


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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 2

Chapter 2 - Exam Answers




1.Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

--> define the structure of layer specific PDU's
--> outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
--> require layer dependent encapsulations


2.Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

--> determine pathways for data
--> retime and retransmit data signals
--> manage data flows



3.What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)

--> identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
--> ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
--> enables the reassembly of complete messages


4.What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

--> supports error detection


5.Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)

--> Physical
--> Data Link


6.What is a PDU?

--> a layer specific encapsulation


7.Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

--> originate data flow


8.Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"

--> an end device


9.Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

--> Network B -- WAN
--> Network C -- LAN
--> Network A -- LAN


10.Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

--> A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
--> The network is administered by a single organization.
--> A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.


11.Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

--> multiplexing


12.What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

--> to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices


13.What device is considered an intermediary device?

--> Switch


14.Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B (GREEN AREA)?

--> intermediary


15.Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

--> LAN


16.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

--> network


17.What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

--> the destination host address


18.Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

--> E, F, H, I, J


19.During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

--> The physical address is added.


20.What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

--> detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it


21.What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

--> application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

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CCNA1 V4.0 Exploration - Chapter 1

Chapter 1 - Exam Answers

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

- They are non-network connections.
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
- They are used for initial router configuration.
- They are asynchronous serial ports.
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)

- debugging.
- password recovery.
routing data between networks.
- troubleshooting.
connecting one router to another.

3.Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
connects peripherals in a single location.
connects multiple networks in a single building.
provides connectivity on a LAN.
- provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

4.An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
- switching.
static addressing.
IETF standardization.
- dynamic or static routing.
- consistent end-to-end addressing.


5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
straight-through cable.
- terminal emulation software.
- rollover cable.
- RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
V.35 cable.


6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
bits per second.
- data bits.
- parity.
- stop bits.
flow control.


7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
hubs.
- routers.
- communication servers.
transceivers.
- modems.
multi-port repeaters.




8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file.
- stores routing table.
- holds fast switching cache.
retains contents when power is removed.
- stores running configuration file.


 9.Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
can be accessed remotely.
- does not depend on network services.
- displays startup and error messages by default.
does not require special components.




10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
- CPU.
hard drive.
- input/output interfaces.
keyboard.
monitor.
- system bus.


 11.During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
twisted.
crossover.
- rollover.
straight.


12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
metal-oxide memory.
read only memory.
flash memory.
- non-volatile random access memory.


13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
packet configuration.
- configuration files.
flash memory.
internal components.


14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
- straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
- a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.




15.Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
volatile random access memory.
read only memory.
- non-volatile random access memory.
flash memory.




16.Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
- physical layer.
application layer.
transport layer.
- data link layer.
session layer.




17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
- connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
- can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
hold the IOS image.
- connect the router to LANs and WANs.




18.Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
- troubleshooting problems.
- monitoring the system.
capturing LAN data packets.
- configuring the router.
routing data packets.




19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
ARP tables.
bridging tables.
- routing tables.
switching tables.




20.Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table.
- retains contents when power is removed.
- stores the startup configuration file.
contains the running configuration file.
stores the ARP table.




21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
holds the startup configuration by default.
- can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
- stores Cisco IOS software images.
stores routing table information by default.
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted. 


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