CCNA 4 Exploration v4.0 - Chapter 5

  Chapter 5 - Exam Answers

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

blocked in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

 

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
source router interface
destination router interface

 

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

by destination UDP port
by protocol type
• by source IP address
by source UDP port
by destination IP address

 

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

 

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

close to the source
• close to the destination
on an Ethernet port
on a serial port

 

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

 

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

 

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
All traffic is implicitly denied.
FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

 

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
The network administrator receives an error.
Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

ISP Fa0/0 outbound
R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
R3 S0/0/1 outbound

 

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

 

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

• extended ACL
reflexive ACL
console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
user account with a privilege level of 15

 

13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

 

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.What type of ACL is most appropriate?

dynamic
port-based
• reflexive
time-based

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

 

16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
The access list statements are misconfigured.
All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?

• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

 

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true

Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

 

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

 

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

 

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

 

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)

Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

 

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

 

25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?

• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

 

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.

CCNA 4 Exploration v4.0 - Chapter 4

 Chapter 4 - Exam Answers

 

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
**Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
** Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

 

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
** A bruteforce attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
** Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

 

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

reconnaissance
access
** DoS
worm
virus
Trojan horse

 

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening email messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

DoS
DDoS
** virus
access
reconnaissance

 

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
** Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
** Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

 

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

securing
** monitoring
testing
improvement
reconnaissance

 

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
describe how the firewall must be configured
** document the resources to be protected
** identify the security objectives of the organization
identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

 

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

** It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
** It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It is developed by end users.
It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
** It defines how to handle security incidents.
It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

 

9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

** By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
DNS name queries require the ip directedbroadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
Using the global configuration command ip nameserver on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
** The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

 

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
** It offers the ability to instantly disable nonessential system processes and services.
It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
** It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?


** The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

 

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600dmz.1214? (Choose two.)

The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
** The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
** The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

 

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)


The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
** The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
** The TFTP server software has not been started.
There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

 

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
** Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
** Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

 

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

** ROM monitor
boot ROM
Cisco IOS
** direct connection through the console port
network connection through the Ethernet port
network connection through the serial port

 

16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?


The password is sent in plain text.
A Telnet session is established with R1.
** The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

 

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
**SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

 

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

** Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

 

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

Schedule antivirus scans.
Schedule antispyware scans .
** Schedule training for all users.
Schedule operating systems updates.

 

20. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?


SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
** SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf messagedigestkey 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?


** to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
to enable SSH encryption of traffic
to create an IPsec tunnel

 

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?


The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
** The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

CCNA 1 Discovery Version 4.0 Module 3

 Module 3 - Exam Answers

1. Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?

 flow control
 **encapsulation
 encoding
 multicasting
 access method

 

2. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?

 **H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
 H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
 H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
 H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

 

3. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)

 adds complexity to networks
 encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
 **provides consistent interconnections across networks
 ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
 **simplifies new product development

 

4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?

 type of cable used
 type of data transmission
 **speed of transmission
 type of connector required
 maximum length of cable allowed

 

5. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

 source IP address
 source MAC address
 destination IP address
 **destination MAC address
 source Ethernet address

 

6. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?

 logical addresses only
 IP addresses only
 **MAC addresses only
 broadcast addresses only

 

7. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?

 **detects transmission errors
 provides timing for transmission
 contains the start of frame delimiter
 indicates which protocol will receive the frame

 

8. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?

 They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
 They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
 They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
 **They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
 They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

 

9. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?

 modem
 switch
 router
 **hub

 

10. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)

 router
 **hub
 **switch
 server
 computer

 

11. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?

 **ARP
 DHCP
 DNS
 WINS

 

12. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?

 It drops the frame.
 It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
 **It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
 It returns the frame to the sender.

 

13. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?

 prevents collisions on a local network
 **keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
 controls which hosts have access to the network
 controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

 

14. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?

 It sends the data packet as it was received.
 **It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
 It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
 It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

 

15. Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?

 ARP table
 **routing table
 network table
 forwarding table

 

16. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

 The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
 **The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
 The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
 There is no impact on communications.

 

17. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?

 a server hosted by the ISP
 **the router interface closest to the computer
 a server managed by a central IT department
 the switch interface that connects to the computer

 

18. If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?

 dynamic route
 **default route
 destination route
 default destination

 

19. Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)

 **naming scheme
 **IP addressing scheme
 length of cable runs
 physical location of networking devices
 specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

 

20. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)

 NIC
 **switch
 e-mail server
 application server
 **wireless access point

 

21. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?

 It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
 It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
 It enables the user to share printers.
 **It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

CCNA 1 Discovery Version 4.0 Module 2

 Module 2 - Exam Answers

 

 

 

1. An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem? 

  **clean install
  upgrade
  multi-boot
  virtualization

 

2. Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.) 

  Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
  **Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
  **Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
  Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
  Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.

 

3. Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.) 

  closest server
  operating system
  **IP address
  **subnet mask
  **default gateway
  network card driver

 

4. Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.) 

  partition
  file system
  **computer name
  **IP address
  operating system

 

5. Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt? 

  **CLI
  GUI
  redirector
  kernel translator

 

6. What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.) 

  **full access to source code
  **software often available free
  structured development cycle
  can be expensive to purchase
  limits what end-user can do with code
  **support normally user-based and often free

 

7. What is the purpose of a default gateway? 

  physically connects a computer to a network
  provides a permanent address to a computer
  identifies the network to which a computer is connected
  identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
  **identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

 

8. Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.) 

  **Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
  **A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
  User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
  A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
  Each partition requires a different file system type.

 

9. What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically? 

  Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
  A network administrator enters information on each computer.
  **Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
  An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.

 

10. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.) 

  **CLI
  OS
  **GUI
  NIC
  kernel

 

11. Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.) 

  **required hard disk space
  type of accelerated graphics card
  **recommended amount of RAM
  printer requirements
  **processor type and speed 

  type of keyboard

CCNA 1 Discovery Version 4.0 Module 1

 Module 1 - Exam Answers

1. Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?

 RAM
 **CPU
 video card
 sound card
 operating system

 

2. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two.)

 **usually a lower cost
 exact components may be specified
 extended waiting period for assembly
 **adequate for performing most general applications
 suited for customers with special needs

 

3. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?

 **RAM
 NIC
 video card
 sound card
 storage device

 

4. Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?

 modem card
 controller card
 video card
 sound card
 **network interface card

5. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?
 tape drive
 **hard drive
 optical drive (DVD)
 floppy disk drive

 

6. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?

 CPU
 **surge suppressor
 motherboard
 hard drive

 

7. What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)

 **printer
 **speakers
 flash drive
 external DVD
 external modem

8. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)

 protects the computer from voltage surges
 **provides backup power from an internal battery
 protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
 gives the user time to phone the electrical company
 **gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
 provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

 

9. What is a word processor?

 It is a physical computer component.
 **It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
 It is a program that controls the computer resources.
 It is a functional part of an operating system.

 

10. What is the purpose of the ASCII code?

 translates bits into bytes
 interprets graphics digitally
 translates digital computer language into binary language
 **represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits

 

11. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?

 Servers require more power and thus require more components.
 **Servers should be accessible at all times.
 Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
 Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

 

12. What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)

 Mobility is increased.
 **An external monitor can be used.
 **Alternate connectivity options may be available.
 The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
 More wireless security options are available.

 

13. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)

 **CAD
 presentation
 spreadsheet
 word processing
 **medical practice management
 contacts/scheduling management

 

14. Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)

 operating system
 network
 **laptop
 **desktop
 Windows
 **mainframe

 

15. How is a server different from a workstation computer?

 The server works as a standalone computer.
 **The server provides services to clients.
 The workstation has fewer applications installed.
 The workstation has more users who attach to it.

 

16. How many values are possible using a single binary digit?

 1
 **2
 4
 8
 9
 16

 

17. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?

 bits
 pixels
 **hertz
 bytes

 

18. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?

 dry and non humid conditions
 carpeted floor
 **grounding strap
 uncluttered work space

 

19. If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)

 **Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
 **Verify that all cables are connected properly.
 Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
 **Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
 Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
 Reload the computer operating system.

 

20. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)

 **Download and install the most current driver.
 Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
 **Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
 Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
 Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

 

21. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?

 manually assigned by the operating system
 manually assigned by the administrator
 statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
 **dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

CCNA Discovery answers

Hello all,

Besides the questions and answers for CCNA Exploration,i will update the site with all the questions for the Discovery Module (all questions and all correct answers). For those who have started on this route will be very helpful.

I hope that will help you and expect your views.

Good day

Cisco Industry Certifications Exams

Networking Academy courses support the following Cisco certifications:

Certification   :
Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT)   

Recommended Academy Curriculum CCNA Discovery :
# Networking for Home and Small Businesses
# Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
    ICND1 (640-822)
Cisco Certified Network Associate( CCNA)     CCNA Discovery:
# Networking for Home and Small Businesses
# Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
# Introducing Routing and Switching
# Designing and Supporting Computer Networks
or
CCNA Exploration:
# Networking Fundamentals
# Routing Protocols and Concepts
# LAN Switching and Wireless
# Accessing the WAN
    CCNA (640-802)
or
ICND1 (640-822) and
ICND2 (640-816)
Cisco Certified Network Professional(CCNP)     CCNP:
# Building Scalable Networks
# Implementing Secure Converged Wide-Area Networks
# Building Multilayer Switched Networks
# Optimizing Converged Networks
   
Certification Exam(s)
The following three exams:
Composite(642-892)
ISCW (642-825)
ONT (642-845)
or
The following four exams:
BSCI (642-901)
BCMSN (642-812)
ISCW (642-825)
ONT (642-845)

CCNA 4 Exploration v4.0 - Chapter 2

 Chapter 2 - Correct Answers 100%

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

--> Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.

--> Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional
hardware for leased service.

 

2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

 

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch
logical address used to identify the DCE

 

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

ISDN circuit
limited access circuit
switched parallel circuit
• virtual circuit

 

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

ARP
RARP
Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
ICMP

6. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?

• 110
115
220
225

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.

 

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?

It helps to conserve IP addresses.
It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

 

9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)

puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
• The local DLCI number is 401.
• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

 

11. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

 

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?

It is currently not transmitting data.
It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
• It is experiencing congestion.

 

13. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?

• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.

 

14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point subinterfaces will consume.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology thatinterconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

one multipoint subinterface
• two point-to-point subinterfaces
with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

 

 16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?

• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command
coupled with the broadcast keyword.
Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay
nodes.
Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?

Split horizon must be disabled.
The LMI type must be specified.
Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

 

18. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301

R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp

• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

 

20. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?

LMI updates are not being received properly.
• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.

 

22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast 

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

CCNA 4 Exploration v4.0 - Chapter 1

Chapter 1 - Correct Answers 100%

1. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

**Physical Layer
**Data Link Layer
Network Layer
Transport Layer
Presentation Layer
Application Layer

 

2. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

** ATM switches
**core routers
CSU/DSU
Ethernet switches
**Frame Relay switches
repeaters

 

3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dialin and dialout traffic of multiple users to and from a network?

core router
** access server
Frame Relay switch
ATM switch

 

4. Which packetswitched WAN technology offers highbandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
**metro Ethernet
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

 

5. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)

** CIR
**DLCI
DSLAM
** PVC
SPID
53byte cells

 

6. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

**ATM
ISDN
Frame Relay
metro Ethernet

 

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

** low cost
** availability
traffic encryption
available bandwidth
support for voice and video

 

8. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

DLCI
** circuit switching
packet switching
** data bearer channels
switched virtual circuits
** time-division multiplexing

 

9. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

smaller cells
** number of subscribers
committed information rate
distance from the central office of the provider

 

10. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

PVCs
DLCIs
**tunnels
virtual circuits
dedicated Layer 2 links

 

11. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

ATM
ISDN
** analog dialup
T1 Leased Line

 

12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?

**CSU/DSU
Frame Relay switch
ISDN switch
modem
PBX switch

 

13. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

DLCI
DTE
** DCE
BRI
PRI

 

14. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

circuitswitched
dedicated switched lines
frame-switched
**packet-switched

 

15. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

X.25
DSL
** ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI

 

16. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

** modem
router
**CSU/DSU
ISDN switch
Ethernet switch

 

17. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices.
Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.
Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.
The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policybased connectivity.
** The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

 

18. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.
** The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."
The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.
Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.

 

19. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.
A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.
** A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.
All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use.

 

20. Why is the call setup time of a circuitswitched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.
It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.
A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.
**Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

 

21. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.
** Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.
ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packetswitched rather than circuitswitched technology.

 

22. What is an advantage of packetswitched technology over circuitswitched technology?

Packetswitched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuitswitched networks are.
** Packetswitched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
Packetswitched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.
Packetswitched networks usually experience lower latency than circuitswitched networks experience.

CCNA 3 exploration - Final Exam

CCNA 3 - final exam

1. Refer to the exhibit. The Fast Ethernet port Fa0/1 on the switch is configured for auto-negotiate speed/duplex settings, and the NIC on the machine is set to 100 Mbps, full-duplex. The log error message shown has been received. What two solutions could fix the problem? (Choose two.)

Configure the switch manually for auto-negotiate speed/duplex and the NIC on the machine for 100 Mbps, half-duplex.
**Configure both sides of the link for auto-negotiate speed/duplex settings.
**Manually configure both sides of the link for 100 Mbps, full-duplex.
Manually configure the switch for 100 Mbps, full-duplex, and the NIC on the machine for auto-negotiate.
Manually configure the switch for 1000 Mbps, full-duplex, and the NIC on the machine for auto-negotiate.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and Host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?

Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
**Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Configure ISL encapsulation on both ends of the trunk.


3. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard? (Choose two.)

single-input, single-output
**improved range
requires less equipment
hardware upgrade for compatibility
**increased data rates


4. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?

Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
**Configure SW2 as a VTP client.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with no VTP domain password.
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.


5. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)

Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
**After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
**If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.


6. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?

Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
Inter-VLAN routing is not functioning because the switch is still in the process of negotiating the trunk link.
**Interfaces gi0/1 and fa0/1 are carrying data from multiple VLANs.
The interfaces shown are shut down.


7. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?

The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
**The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.


8. Refer to the exhibit. Which device is the authenticator?

**access point
data server
client
RADIUS server


9. What three radio frequency bands are designated by the ITU-R as unlicensed for industrial, scientific, and medical (ISM) communities and are therefore supported by IEEE 802.11? (Choose three.)

**900 MHz
9 MHz
**2.4 GHz
5.7 GHz
**5 GHz
900 GHz


10. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

**Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
**Select the correct VTP mode and version.
**Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.


11. Which three configurations are required to allow remote access to a switch using the telnet command? (Choose three.)

**default gateway
**vty line password
console line password
HTTP server interface authentication
**IP address of the switch on the management VLAN
duplex and speed on the Ethernet port used for the connection


12. What are three benefits of a hiearchical network design model? (Choose three.)

**scalability
higher speed
mobility
**security
**manageability
cost


13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added VoIP telephones and a VoIP gateway computer to the existing switch infrastructure, and then created the VLANs. What must be done to converge the network?

Combine all traffic except management traffic to a single VLAN.
Combine all traffic including management traffic to a single VLAN.
Use Layer 3 switching to combine the voice and data traffic at S1.
**The network is already converged.
Implement a common IP addressing scheme for both VoIP phones and PCs.


14. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping Pc3 but cannot ping Pc1. What is a possible cause for this failure?

**S1 port fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
Pc1 IP address is incorrect.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
Router interface fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.


15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.1 /26
192.168.1.11 /28
**192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28


16. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
**switch F


17. Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with rapid PVST+. Port Gi0/2 on S2 is the root port. A network administrator issues the spanning-tree link-type point-to-point command on port Gi0/1 for switch S2. What is the result of this command?

**If the link between D1 and C1 fails, port Gi0/2 on S2 rapidly transitions to the forwarding state.
PortFast is enabled on Gi0/2 on S2.
Port Gi0/2 on S2 becomes a designated port.
Broadcast packets are restricted on the link between S2 and D1.
Port Gi0/2 on S2 becomes an edge port.



18. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
**A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
**An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.



19. Refer to the exhibit. A host attached to port Fa0/3 of the switch can communicate with the host connected to port Fa0/16, but cannot communicate with the host connected to port Fa0/2. What could account for this failure?

Fa0/3 is down.
The trunk link to the router is down.
**The VLAN0010 network address is missing from the routing table.
Fa0/2 has been assigned to the administrative VLAN.
The router does not have a functional routing protocol installed.


20. A network administrator wants to add a new switch to the existing VTP domain. The new switch will have a VLAN that the administrator does not want visible to any other switches. All other VLANs should be visible on all switches, and all VLANs should be visible to the new switch. Which solution meets the requirements with the least administrative effort?

Add the switch in server mode. After all VLANs have propagated to the new switch, change the trunked link to access mode. Add the private VLAN to the new switch.
Add the switch in server mode. Add an extended range VLAN to the new switch as the private VLAN.
Add the switch in server mode. Add the private VLAN to the new switch. Enable VTP pruning and ensure that no ports are placed in the private VLAN on any other switches.
**Add the switch in client mode. After the existing VLANs have propagated, change the switch to transparent mode. Add the private VLAN.
Add the switch in VTP transparent mode. Manually add all VLANs to the switch.


21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?

all hosts
Host B and the router
**Host C and the router
the router, Host C, and all the hosts connected to Hub1


22. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)

An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
**Standardized trunking protocol is used.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
**The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
**Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default administrative VLAN.


23. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are listed beneath each interface. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which three port results are correct? (Choose three.)

**S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
**S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
**S1 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.


24. Refer to the exhibit. Switches C1, D1, D2, and S2 have all been configured with RSTP. S1 and S3 are not capable of rapid PVST+ and are in the default configuration. What three implications does this have for the Layer 2 network? (Choose three.)

Because S1 and S3 are not trunking, they have no spanning-tree instance.
A topology change BPDU from C1 forces the uplinks on S1 and S3 to stop forwarding traffic for twice the forward delay time.
**Port Gi0/1 on D1 and port Gi0/1 on D2 become designated ports.
**Loss of the root port link on S2 causes a rapid transition to non-designated port on S2.
**PortFast can be enabled on all ports on S1 and S3.
Gi0/1 on S1 and Gi0/1 on S3 become designated ports.


25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The SSH version number is wrong.
**SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.


26. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?

802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
**802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type or length fields.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type or length fields.


27. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)

**This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
**Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.


28. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

**It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
**It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.


29. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

**A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.
**The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
**The hosts are configured on different logical networks.

30. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?

A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
**The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.


31. How can the SSID for a wireless network connection be verified?

From the Network Connections menu, choose Add Wireless Network.
From the Network Connections menu, choose Properties.
**From the Network Connections menu, choose View Wireless Network.
From the Network Connections menu, choose Support.


32. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?

client
root
server
**transparent
nontransparent


33. Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across the different switches?

**trunking
STP
VTP
routing


34. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?

It is configured in privileged EXEC mode.
It encrypts only line mode passwords.
**As soon as the service password-encryption command is entered, all currently set passwords formerly displayed in plain text are encrypted.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command in plain text, issue the no service password-encryption command.


35. Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
**The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.


36. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?

The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter limitation is 9.
Convergence is slower as the BPDU travels away from the root.
**BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.


37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. How far is the collision propagated?

hub HB1
**switch SW1
switch SW2
router R1
router R2


38. Which method establishes an administrative connection to the wireless access point?

Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
**From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.


39. Refer to the exhibit. All the VLANs configured on S2 are present on S1 but not S3. All switches are set to VTP server mode and have identical VTP domain names configured. What is the likely problem?

**The connection from S1 to S3 is not trunking.
S3 does not have a management VLAN configured.
The VLAN 99 interface on S3 is in a different subnet than S1 and S2.
S3 was joined to the network with a lower revision number than S1.


40. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network are interconnected via trunk links with VTP pruning enabled on all three switches. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?

**VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005


41. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
**The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.


42. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

**The newly inserted switch has a higher VTP server revision number, which caused the VLAN information in the VTP domain to be deleted.
The newly inserted switch has pruning enabled, which causes pruning of all VLANs from the trunk port.
The newly inserted switch received more VLANs from a connected switch than the switch can support.
Switches can exchange VTP information only through an access link.


43. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/0 is configured as an edge port?

SW1 port F0/0 transitions to the learning state.
**SW1 port F0/0 can generate a temporary loop while in the sync state.
SW1 port F0/0 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
SW4 port F0/10 is forced into the blocking state.

44. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

**forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2

45. Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows the switch to provide power to which two types of devices? (Choose two.)

printer
**wireless access points
desktop PC
**IP phones
Scanners

46. Refer to the exhibit. Three new VLANs have been configured to improve the performance of the network. Host A would like to send a frame destined to Host B. Which statement is true about the process of sending the frame?

Host A sends an ARP request to the default gateway configured for VLAN10 to resolve destination MAC to IP address mapping. Then the frame is sent to switch SW1 only to switch the traffic to Host B.
**Host A sends an ARP request to the default gateway for VLAN10 to resolve destination MAC to IP address mapping. Then the frame is sent to router R1 to route the traffic to the appropriate VLAN.
Host A broadcasts an ARP request to the members of all VLANs. If none of the hosts replies with a corresponding IP address, the frame is dropped.
Because Host A and Host B are connected to the same switch SW1, Host A forwards the frame to Host B directly.

47. Which command finds the next available parameter for the SwitchX# clock command with the fewest keystrokes?

SwitchX# clock?
SwitchX# clock then Tab
SwitchX# clock then Ctrl-P
**SwitchX# clock ?
SwitchX# clock then "help"

48. Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)

makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interface
**requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shut command
**can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
**more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces

49. Refer to the exhibit. Two switches, SW1 and SW2, are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A is on the native VLAN. How does untagged traffic coming from Host A traverse the trunk link?

SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 tags the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
**The untagged traffic is forwarded as part of the native VLAN.
The untagged traffic is dropped because the trunk forwards only tagged frames.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1p encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

50. Refer to the exhibit. What encryption algorithm does the 802.11i standard employ for data encryption?

PSK
TKIP
WEP
**AES

51. A network administrator is tasked to select hardware to support a large enterprise, switched network. The system requires redundant backplane interconnections between eight high port density switches. Which hardware solution would be appropriate for this enterprise?

modular switches
fixed configuration switches
**stackable switches
uplink capable switches
link aggregated switches

52. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?

**Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

53. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)

**Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
**The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

54. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
**All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
**All interfaces are set to auto.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
**The flash directory contains the IOS image.

55. An access point supports both the 802.11g and 802.11b standards. A device that supports only 802.11b attempts to connect to the access point. What happens to the connection?

The network does not connect unless the user is within line of sight of the access point.
**The access point and all other connected users defer to the 802.11b standard.
The access point always maintains the higher standard and automatically upgrades the 802.11b device to the 802.11g speed.
Each user gets the speed supported by the wireless NIC on their mobile device.

56. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
**Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Trunk mode can be configured on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces only.

57. What two tasks must be performed when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose two.)

Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.
Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.
**Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.
**Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.
Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.

58. How does an Ethernet switch handle traffic if the shared memory buffers and the port memory buffers are full?

The switch allocates additional buffers in NVRAM.
The switch defragments the frame and stores it in NVRAM.
The switch routes the packet to the destination port.
**The switch drops the traffic.